Antinomian Christianity

Moving Blogs

2011-06-05T04:23:00.000-07:00

Well, I've found a new church, and have decided to move over to this new blog:

Why the change? Well, I have decided not to be so antagonistic, me against the world, now that I have found a large group of brothers and sisters who believe likewise in Grace.

Being antinomian as I have posted, is a derogatory term, and thus its perhaps best to not purposely start off on the wrong foot with other Christians

Agape

I've Found A Home

2011-04-03T19:32:00.000-07:00

Finally, I've found a church in Malaysia that I can call home

http://www.tncchurch.org

A church that preaches purely grace without works, preaching Jesus' complete works on the cross.

Mary (mother of Jesus') of the Bible

2010-12-19T02:07:00.000-08:00

1) Was Mary the Eternal Virgin?

I had a discussion with several Catholics on an online forum, debating about the eternal virginity of Mary. Was Mary a virgin after giving birth to Jesus? Or did Mary have normal sexual relations with Joseph as normal married couple do after marriage?

Well it is clear that Jesus had siblings. When Jesus preached in his home town, he was rejected, and the people there said:

Mt:13:55 “Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas”

Mk:6:3 “Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.”

Apparently, this is a common argument pointed at the Catholic church, and they have readily used alternative theories, namely:

1) Joseph had an earlier marriage, and these are siblings from that earlier marriage

2) It is common for close friends to call each other brothers and sisters, when they are not really related

They even have it written down by prominent Catholic priests in history and made this cannon in the Catholic Church doctrine. Either way, their theory is that Mary remained a virgin and had no further children after Jesus

But the Scripture is not something for us to take lightly, and manipulate and distort to our tastes and biases. Fortunately, God in his infinite wisdom leaves us a clear answer

At the Cross

When Jesus was crucified on the cross, here are the people who were there

Mt:27:56 "Among which was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedee's children."

Mk:15:40 "There were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joses, and Salome"

Jn:19:25-27 "Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene. When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home."

Although there was a throng of people there to witness the crucifixion, there were several people there that was important for the writers of the gospels to mention

Thus to summarise, those who were in attendance were:

1. Mary Magdalene (Matthew, Mark & John)

2. Mary the mother of James and Joses (Matthew and Mark)

3. Mother of Zebedee's sons (Matthew)

4. Salome (Mark) although it could also be read that Mary was the mother of James, Joses & Salome, excluding her from being in attendance. Salome is also mentioned in Mark 16:1, but again could be read as a separate person, or as a daughter of Mary. Some scholars think that she might also be the mother of Zebedee's sons, but this is inconclusive.

5. Mary mother of Jesus (John)

6. Mary wife of Clophas (John)

7. Un-named sister of Jesus' mother (John), but could also be read to be (6) Mary wife of Clophas

8. Un-named Beloved Disciple (John) who many believe to be John himself, as he frequently referred himself as the disciple Jesus loved.

Now, cross reference that with the earlier verses of when Jesus preached in his home town, and the people there's reference to Jesus

We clearly see that:

1. Mary, mother of Jesus was at the cross (John)

2. Mary mother of James and Joses was at the cross (James & Joses)

3. Jesus was known as the son of Mary, and brother of James and Joses.

It is quite clear based on the evidence in the Scripture, and taking no non scriptural evidence that a conclusion can confidently be made that Mary the mother of Jesus was also the mother of James and Joses, and quite a number of other children.

In fact, this is the most sound conclusion to base your doctrine on, since it can all be proven in the scriptures, rather than rely on personal convictions of priests and preachers who were not there and were written centuries later.

2) Was Mary Blessed Above Other Women?

Well based on my own personal opinion, Mary was indeed blessed to be able to carry the Messiah. However, to call her blessed above other women, and making it into a title of some veneration, it is best one look into the scriptures to see if this is scripturally sound.

In the scriptures, Mary is considered blessed among women, not above.

Lk 1:28 "And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women."

Lk 1:42 "And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb."

The bible says she was blessed among women, as she was selected by grace to carry Jesus, so that he would be in the line of David, as prophesied in the scripture.

Only one woman was ”blessed above women”, and only a particular tent, is found in the book of Judges

Judges 5:24 "Blessed above women shall Jael the wife of Heber the Kenite be, blessed shall she be above women in the tent."

Speaking of Mary being blessed, after casting out a demon, someone tried to bless the woman who gave birth to Jesus. But Jesus rejected this blessing towards Mary

Lk 11:27-28 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it."

3) Mary "Mother of Jesus" ?

The Catholics have referred Mary as the “Mother of God”. This is simply wrong and is in nowhere mentioned in the Scriptures.

In fact, even the mention of the phrase “mother of Jesus” is never used in all first 3 gospels.

Mt 27:56 “Among which was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedee's children.”

Mk 15:40 ”There were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joses, and Salome;”

Mk 15:47 “And Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Joses beheld where he was laid”

Mk 16:1 “And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.”

Lk 24:10 “It was Mary Magdalene, and Joanna, and Mary the mother of James, and other women that were with them, which told these things unto the apostles”

It is only in the book of John, that Mary is mentioned as the “mother of Jesus” or similar phrases.

Jn 2:1 “And the third day there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there”

Jn 2:3 “And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto him, They have no wine…”

Jn 19:25 “Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister,Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.”

Acts 1:14 “These all continued with one accord in prayer and supplication, with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren.

Interestingly, in the book of Acts, Mary is later referred to as the mother of John!

Acts 12:12 “And when he had considered the thing, he came to the house of Mary the mother of John, whose surname was Mark; where many were gathered together praying.”

Why mother of John?

Jn 19:26-27 “When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.”

4) How Did Jesus treat Mary?

Did Mary have a more powerful sway over Jesus, like most mothers do over their children? This is the general argument explicitly or implicitly stated when discussing about Mary.

Mt 12:47-50 “Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee. But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren?And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren!For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Mk 3:32-35 “And the multitude sat about him, and they said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren without seek for thee. And he answered them, saying, Who is my mother, or my brethren? And he looked round about on them which sat about him, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Lk 8:20-21 “And it was told him by certain which said, Thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to see thee. And he answered and said unto them, My mother and my brethren are these which hear the word of God, and do it.”

Jn 2:3-4 “And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto him, They have no wine. Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come”

Jn 19:26-27 “When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.”

It doesn’t look like Jesus ever referred to her as his Mother during his ministry, or adult life.

5) Did Mary have any special knowledge of God’s plans, or able to influence Jesus in them?

Clearly she did not. Not even when Jesus was 12 years old.

Lk 2:48-52 “And when they saw him, they were amazed: and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing. And he said unto them, How is it that ye sought me? wist ye not that I must be about my Father's business? And they understood not the saying which he spake unto them. And he went down with them, and came to Nazareth, and was subject unto them: but his mother kept all these sayings in her heart. And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man.”

Mary was a wonderful woman, blessed by God. However, she was only human, and had no knowledge of Gods plans, nor any influence on it. Not even when Jesus was a child.

6) Who Intercedes For Us?

There are many Catholics who claim that they do not “worship” Mary. They claim that they are only asking Mary (or a “saint”) to intercede or pray on their behalf.

Although this is a nice clever argument, but the scripture is very clear. There is only ONE person who intercedes for us. Jesus.

Rom 8:26-27 “Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.”

Rom 8:34 “Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.”

Heb 7:25 “Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

Thus you pray to Jesus, who is interceding for us, not Mary, not any saint, not angels not even a priest.

Yes, in the Old Testament, the people pray to God through a priest. However, in the New Testament on, we pray through our High Priest: Jesus!

Heb 3:1 “Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling, consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus;”

Heb 2:17 “Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people”.

Heb 4:14-15 “Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession. For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.”

Heb:5:1 “ For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins”

Heb:5:5-6 “ So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee. As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

Heb 5:10 “ Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.”

Heb 6:20 “Whither the forerunner is for us entered, even Jesus, made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.”

Heb 7:22-28 “By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament. And they truly were many priests, because they were not suffered to continue by reason of death: But this man, because he continueth ever, hath an unchangeable priesthood. Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them. For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens; Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself. For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; but the word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore.”

Heb 8:1 “Now of the things which we have spoken this is the sum: We have such an high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens;

Heb 9:11 “But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building”

Heb 9:24-25 “For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us. Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;

Heb 10:16-21 “This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them; And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more. Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin. Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus, By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh; And having an high priest over the house of God”

Rom 11:2 “God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against Israel, saying,”

So since Jesus is our ONLY intercessor, if you pray to or through Mary, or some long dead saint, who are you praying to/through? Prayers to the dead are strictly forbidden in the scriptures

Deut 18:11-12 “Or a charmer, or a consulter with familiar spirits, or a wizard, or a necromancer. or all that do these things are an abomination unto the LORD: and because of these abominations the LORD thy God doth drive them out from before thee.”

Conclusion

Mary indeed was blessed to bear Jesus into the world. She rightly has her place in Christian history and in the bible

However, it is wrong to venerate her beyond what is clearly written in the scriptures. And it is even more erroneous when she takes the place of Jesus, be it as a being more powerful than God (mother of God) or as an intercessor (Jesus is the only intercessor).

ANYONE who takes the place of Jesus, be it Mary, some “saint”, or even the easter bunny or Santa Claus is clearly Anti-Christ.

This is not a criticism of merely the Catholics, but other denominations too. There are many who nearly worships their pastor/leader of the church, and overly places the word of their teacher/writer of their Christian teachings ABOVE what is clearly stated in the Bible.

I have heard many messages about materialism, money, vices etc being above Christ is sin. I do not disagree with these teachings.

However, more importantly in the church itself, there are more insidious teachings that places other things above Jesus. They are more dangerous, because they do not seem outwardly sinful and do not fit easily with other easy to pigeonhole sins such as habitual sins and materialism, fitting in very nicely with playing church

Teachings that are placed above Jesus such as:

1) emphasizing your works/service/missions above the work Jesus has done

2) overly placing emphasis on your pastor/preacher/priest’s teachings over the Word of God

3) overly placing emphasis on your cell groups/church service/training over a personal relationship with God

The surest way you will know that you are being led astray is when the emphasis of your church is not Jesus, or when something or someone replaces Jesus in any capacity

Baptism of the Holy Spirit

2010-12-19T00:14:00.000-08:00

These are some of my old notes from many years ago, when I was asked to respond to a pamphlet regarding Baptism of the Holy Spirit. I hope these notes will be useful to you if you are reading this. I will try to remember why and what was the discussion about, as my notes are in question and answer form, and I have long lost the original pamphlet that I was responding to. I have left in the numbers and the questions from the original pamphlet, but the answers are mine, although I do reference verses from the original pamphlet and respond to them.

1&2) Does one receive the Holy Spirit at conversion or at Baptism?

Ephesians 1: 13-14 states “In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14: Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.”

As the Scripture has written, so then must we believe. We are sealed with the Holy Spirit when we received our salvation.

In the pamphlet, it's answer quoted Acts 19:1-6 as proof that we receive the Holy Spirit only after baptism. This is in fact in error. Let us examine what the Scriptures say in context and compare with other Scriptures to get a clear picture.

Acts 19:1-6 states "And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied."

The confusion here is easily clarified once you know that these disciples are the disciples of John the Baptist, not John the disciple of Jesus. It is only after Paul preached to them and they got saved that they received the Holy Spirit!

Lets compare what John the Baptist preached

Mat 3: 1-3 "In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea, And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand. For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight."

John the Baptist preached what the Old Testament prophets preached, that you should repent, get right with God. This is also what many churches are still preaching even today.

In Luke 7:20 there were disciples of John who asked Jesus if he was the one John was preaching about. Jesus answered yes. But as above, in Acts 19:4, Paul had to tell these particular disciples of John that the one they are waiting for is Jesus. They never knew before this hence they have never accepted Jesus Christ.

Many Christians are confused between receiving the Holy Spirit, and Baptism of the Holy Spirit. We receive the Holy Spirit when we accept Jesus Christ as our Lord and Savior. We get Baptised in the Holy Spirit when we, through faith allow the Holy Spirit to activate in us. This is evidenced by speaking in tongues and followed by other Gifts of the Spirit.

Thus, we receive the Holy Spirit at conversion. We get Baptised in the Holy Spirit after one receives Jesus Christ as his/her Lord and Savior. Then, with the Holy Spirit sealed in them, and being a new creation, one can be Baptised the Holy Spirit. This can happen before or after water baptism.

3) Should one take Water Baptism even after receiving the Holy Spirit?

Yes. Baptism is a practice whereby one publicly identifies with Christ in death, burial and resurrection. However, being baptized is not a prerequisite for salvation

4) Is speaking in tongues the only sign for receiving the Holy Spirit?

More accurately, speaking in tongues is the surest sign of undergoing Baptism of the Holy Spirit. In the early churches, tongues was used to differentiate real believers and spies of the authorities who persecute them.

More to the point, the question is asking if there is a sign to tell if someone is saved? No, not by man.

Romans 10:6-11 " …Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above:) Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.) But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach; That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.

These verses simply state that it is not up to us to determine who is saved and who is not. We simply sow the seed, it is the ground that determines whether anything grows or not. But God is faithful if the ground receives the seed, and that person will be saved. But it is between that person and God, not us.

15) Can a person be in Christ without Baptism of the Holy Spirit?

22) Is Spirit Baptism necessary to become a member of the body of Christ?

Referring to the above argument, we receive the Holy Spirit when we accept Jesus Christ. Thus we are in Christ, and are a member of the body of Christ.

However, without Baptism of the Holy Spirit, we are not effective as Christians, nor as members of the Body of Christ. This is because without the Holy Spirit working supernaturally in us, we will only have our own natural resources and will eventually burn out.

If we note in 1 Cor 12:27-31 many of the functions of the Body of Christ requires being Baptised in the Holy Spirit.

20A) Is it necessary to receive the Holy Spirit if we are to be cought up at he coming of the Lord?

Since I clarified my stance, and differ from the pamphlet on when we "receive" the Holy Spirit, we will presume that the question is asking if it is necessary to be Baptised in the Holy Spirit to be caught up in the coming of the Lord

Here is the verse on us being "cought up" with our Lord

1 Thes 4: 16-18 "For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first, Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. Wherefore comfort one another with these words."

This verses refer to the rapture. To clarify who will be caught up, in the next chapter, the Bible states"

1 Thes 5: 9 "For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ"

Thus, if you are saved, even if you have not received the Baptism of the Holy Spirit, you are not appointed to wrath!

20B) Our Sanctification

I believe in the original pamphlet, part of the answer was that the Holy Spirit sanctifies us, but went further to state that if we do not have the Holy Spirit (presumably because the writer of the pamphlet believes that the Holy Spirit only comes after Baptism), we are not sanctified yet until we get Baptised in the Holy Spirit

Firstly I do agree that the Holy Spirit sanctifies us

1Cor:6:11: And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.

But what is the basis of our sanctification?

Heb 10: 9-14 "Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second. By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins: But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God; From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool. For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified."

It is Jesus’ sacrifice and our acceptance of that sacrifice in our place that makes us sanctified! Not Baptism of the Holy Spirit.

Then, and only then, the Holy Spirit bears witness

Heb 10:15-18 "Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before, This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them; And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more. Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.

24) Is not the Holy Spirit and the Spirit of Christ the same?

I can't remember what this is about, however this was my response to the answer given in the pamphlet:

Yes, they are the same. The Spirit of God is the same also.

In the Old Testament, the Holy Spirit came upon the prophets, and thus they prophesied and performed miracles. Now, the Holy Spirit dwells within us

Rom 8: 9: But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

This verse states that we are spirits, and that the Holy Spirit dwells in us. If we do not have the Holy Spirit, we are not of God, reemphasizing the fact that we receive the Holy Spirit on conversion. The next verse further reestablishes this

Rom 8: 10: And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

In reference to 1 Peter 1:11&12

1 Peter:1:11-12 “Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow. Unto whom it was revealed, that not unto themselves, but unto us they did minister the things, which are now reported unto you by them that have preached the gospel unto you with the Holy Ghost sent down from heaven; which things the angels desire to look into”.

As explained earlier, in the Old Testament, the Holy Spirit rested upon the prophets, hence they could prophesy about Christ.

Verse 12 simply states that in God’s timing, through the Holy Spirit, the revelation of Christ is revealed to us. But at the time of prophesy, the prophets themselves did not understand what they were prophesying about nor did the angels.

NB: In verse 11, the KJV states that the Spirit of Christ which was “in” them, in the Old Testament, the Spirit of God always rested upon them, not in them. Also there is no reference to the Spirit of Christ in the Old Testament, only Spirit of God.

25) Can we not witness if we have not received the Baptism of the Holy Spirit?

If we look at Acts 1:8, we see that it IS about witnessing for him, and not about “revealing Christ through us”

Acts 1:8: But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.

But what are we witnessing?

Luke 24:46-48 “ … Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. And ye are witnesses of these things.”

Yes it is true that one of the words for witness is martus or martur which means a martyr ie one who bears witness by his death

But other words in the New Testament for witness are also marturia and, marturion which means to testify or to make a declaration of facts.

The usage of the first one martus or martur (martyr), is only used

a) of God

- Rom 1:9 For God is my witness, whom I serve with my spirit in the gospel of his Son, that without ceasing I make mention of you always in my prayers;

- 2 Cor 1: 23: Moreover I call God for a record upon my soul, that to spare you I came not as yet unto Corinth.

- Phil 1: 8: For God is my record, how greatly I long after you all in the bowels of Jesus Christ.

- 2 Thes 2: 5: For neither at any time used we flattering words, as ye know, nor a cloke of covetousness; God is witness:

b) of Christ

- Rev 1: 5: And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

c) of real martyrs

- Acts 22: 20: And when the blood of thy martyr Stephen was shed, I also was standing by, and consenting unto his death, and kept the raiment of them that slew him.

- Rev 2: 13: I know thy works, and where thou dwellest, even where Satan's seat is: and thou holdest fast my name, and hast not denied my faith, even in those days wherein Antipas was my faithful martyr, who was slain among you, where Satan dwelleth.

- Rev 17: 6: And I saw the woman drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus: and when I saw her, I wondered with great admiration.

d) of the 2 witnesses in the Revelations

- Rev 11: 3: And I will give power unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy a thousand two hundred and threescore days, clothed in sackcloth.

e) in a forensic sense (as evidence)

- Mat 18: 16: But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.

- Mat 26: 65: Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.

- there are many more where this is used including Mark 14:63, Acts 6:13, 7:58 etc but as you can see this usage is not what is meant by being a witness in this argument

The usage of marturia means to bring “testimony. a bearing witness” . Similar to the above, ie forensically the usages are for

- 1 John 5: 9: If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son

- .Titus 1: 13: This witness is true. Wherefore rebuke them sharply, that they may be sound in the faith;

- there are several more incidences, but not quoted here by me due to time

The usage of marturion means “a declaration of facts”. This is the translation that we should use when we are told to witness.

- Mat 24: 14: And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

- Acts 4: 33: And with great power gave the apostles witness of the resurrection of the Lord Jesus: and great grace was upon them all.

- Acts 7: 44: Our fathers had the tabernacle of witness in the wilderness, as he had appointed, speaking unto Moses, that he should make it according to the fashion that he had seen.

All these translations are taken from the Vines dictionary of Greek Note, none of these Greek words apply to “revealing of Christ through us”

Now the first usage of martyr is not what is meant by us being witnesses, because we are not asked in Acts 1:8 to die in the process of witnessing the gospel

The second usage is also not accurate as we were not there in person to see the gospel as it happened.

The third usage is the most accurate, as we are to declare the gospel to the world.

Conclusion

We should not confuse receiving the Holy Spirit with Baptism of the Holy Spirit.

We receive the Holy Spirit upon our salvation, while we receive the Gifts of the Spirit upon being Baptised by the Holy Spirit. The gifts of tongues and the other Gifts of the Spirit are the outwards manifestation of being Baptised by the Holy Spirit.

It is God’s will that all of us speak in tongues, cast out demons, heal the sick (Mark 16:17).

Some churches, through experiential teachings, reject tongues. These believers, if they have accepted Jesus Christ, have the Holy Spirit in them and are saved. But through the unbelieving teachings they are taught unbelief.

However on the opposite side, there are some churches who teach that you are only saved if you speak in tongues. This is wrong biblically as well. It also produces bondage

As long as you are saved, you will go to Heaven when you die or get raptured. However, Baptism of the Holy Spirit is important as it gives you God’s anointing to do his work and requires faith.

Heb:11:6: But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.

That is why:

Churches that don’t believe in tongues, won’t have tongues in a large scale (only privately by members who believe)
Churches that don’t believe in healing, have no healing in that church
Churches that don’t believe in prosperity, the members suffer financially

Why? Because God responds to faith, not need, nor hard work, not how high up in the heirachy in the church you are, not even how much tongues you pray.

Jesus responded to faith with the following words

To the Centurion:

Mat 8:13: “… and as thou hast believed, so be it done unto thee…”

To the two blind men:

Mat 9:29 “… According to your faith be it unto you.”

To the Syrophenicean woman:

Mat 15:28 “…great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt…”

Faith Without Works is Nothing??

2010-09-24T03:51:00.000-07:00

"Faith without works is Nothing!".

I heard this from the pulpit many times in my youth..

"Show me your faith and I'll show you my faith by my works"

... the preacher yells. And after a while it becomes a lecture, usually about service, and in a condemning and/or accusing tone. The tune is the same

Are you serving in your church?
If not, why not?
If so, why aren't you serving more?

And thus the message becomes a recruiting drive to get more people to serve in the church.

Whats wrong with that you ask? Well, for one, I don't believe in condemning people in any messages from the pulpit. There is no room for fire and brimstone, trying to scare unbelievers to believe, and to get your congregation to give more.

People will believe if you preach God's love, not condemnation. Similarly, believers WILL serve in what they believe they are called to if they are told that God loves them, and have blessed them, and out of the overflowing blessings will they give more and serve more.

Guilt trips don't work anywhere. It doesn't work with your spouse, it doesn't work with your friends, it doesn't work with your colleagues. It works with your children up to a certain age, then they grow out of being affected by it,.

AND it doesn't work on the church congregation, not for long anyway. Not only it doesn't work, it SHOULDN'T be used by the preacher.

Not only that, the Scriptural basis of the verses that are commonly used, if you look closely is wrong.

Lets look at the book of James where this is from.

James 2

James 2:14 states "What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?"

In the same chapter James 2:17-18 boasts "Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone. Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works."

James continues boldly in James 2:20 "But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?".

James 20:26 states with finality "For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also."

However, as usual the answer lies in studying the Scriptures in context, both within the context of the current passages, but also within the overall context and flow and logic that the Scriptures are written.

Why? Because all misunderstandings and arguments can be solved by reading on and following the rabbit trail God leads us on. Taking verses here and there out of context, and WILL lead to inconsistent and bad doctrine and belief.

Lets read further and deeper into James 2. In James2:21-25, he writes

" Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? And the scripture was fulfilled which saith,Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God. Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only. Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?"

Thats very interesting, and as will be pointed to time and time again, the examples given in the Scriptures always lead you to an answer. Many times the answer is different from the "headline" so to speak and can only be explained in the way only God can through his Scriptures.

The headline was the first few verses, that faith without works cannot save and is dead

Lets breakdown verses 21-25 as they lead to very interesting trails through the new testament

The two examples are of Abraham and Rahab and their specific "works".

Of Abraham:

verse 21 - Abraham was justified by works when he sacrificed his son on the altar

verse 22 - faith with works perfected his faith

verse 23 - fulfilled Scripture where Abraham believed in God, and this imputed in him righteousness, and he was called a friend of God

verse 24 - thus it is by works that man is justified, not just works.

Of Rahab

verse25 - How as a harlot, she was justified by works when she received the messengers and let them escape

Both examples are very interesting

Romans 4:2-5 states the complete opposite "For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness."

Galatians 3:6 also states "Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness". However in context, Galatians 3 was about faith without works. Galatians 3:7-14 is especially clear

" Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham. And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham. For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them. Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree. That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith."

Now is it inconsistent? How can the Bible say two completely opposite things?

This is answered in the above mentioned Scripture from James.

James 2:22 states "Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?"

This clearly states that works perfected Abraham's faith.

Here is where the issue is. Many churches use this to immediately put the burden on the congregation challenging them to do works to justify their faith. But is this what James and Paul is writing about? Lets go back to see the two examples, Abraham and Rehab.

The Story of Abraham

Abram (renamed Abraham later) was first mentioned in Genesis 11, but its Genesis 12 that God first talked to Abram and asked him to leave his father's land, and in return, God promised in Genesis 12:2-3 "And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing, And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed."

He was 75 years old when he departed from Haran (Genesis 12:4)

He was 100 years old when Isaac was finally born (Genesis 21:5)

Now, we don't know how old Isaac was when he was given as a sacrifice. However, we do know that Sarah (his mother and Abraham's wife) gave birth to Isaac at 90 years of age (Genesis 17:17) and she died at a ripe old age of 127 (Genesis 23:1). The incident when God asked Abraham to sacrifice Isaac was between then, so we can assume Isaac's age as anywhere between 0-37 years old.

Secondly, Abraham collected wood for the sacrifice and put it on Isaac for him to carry (Genesis 22:6). This was sufficient wood for burning up a human body (or at least a burnt offering of a ram). Thus, it is unlikely we are talking about a few bits of splinter wood on a young child.

In fact, experts have estimated that Isaac could have been as old as 33 years old!!

If we assume that Isaac could be anywhere between 0-33 years old, and Abraham was 100 years old when Isaac was born, Abraham would be anywhere between 100 to 133 years old when this incident happened.

Now is the big question. WHEN did Abraham require faith, that the work of attempting to sacrifice Isaac in obedience was supposed to perfect?

Romans 4:17-22 states "(As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be. And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sara's womb: He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God; And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform. And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness."

Thus, Abraham had faith since the first time God asked him to leave Haran, and go forth. Again we presume Abraham was anywhere between 100-133 years old when he was to sacrifice Isaac, and that he left Haran at 75.

Thus the time period for when he had faith, to when his faith was made perfect was 25-58 years!

The Story of Rahab

The story of Rehab takes place in Joshua 2. To resist the urge to repost the whole chapter, here is the summary:

Verse 1 - Rehab was a prostitute in Jericho that the Israelites were going to conquer. Joshua sent 2 spies, and they hid in her house as the city were searching for them

Verse 4 - Somehow the king of Jericho knew they went to her house and asked her for them

Verses 5-8 - She hid them and said she didn't know where they went and sent the soldiers on a wild goose chase

Verse 9 - she believed in the Lord and believed that God was going to give them the city

Verses 10-11 - the whole city trembled with fear at the feats of God for the Israelites

Verses 12-14 - she asks for mercy when they do attack the city, and they promised her and her family safety.

Verses 15-16 - she helps them escape and tells them where to hide outside the city before going back to Joshua

Verses 18-20 - they tell her to gather her family in her house, and tie a scarlet thread on the window, and that household will be spared

Just to finish the story, Joshua 6:23 shows how the Israelites got into the city and rescued Rahab and her family

Now, again it is very clear, her faith was made perfect with her works when she hid and helped the 2 spies escape

The question is, when did she have faith in the first place, BEFORE her works?

Lets go back to Joshua 2:9-11 "And she said unto the men, I know that the LORD hath given you the land, and that your terror is fallen upon us, and that all the inhabitants of the land faint because of you. For we have heard how the LORD dried up the water of the Red sea for you, when ye came out of Egypt; and what ye did unto the two kings of the Amorites, that were on the other side Jordan, Sihon and Og, whom ye utterly destroyed. And as soon as we had heard these things, our hearts did melt, neither did there remain any more courage in any man, because of you: for the LORD your God, he is God in heaven above, and in earth beneath."

From verse 9 it is clear she believed already that God has given them the city. But WHEN did she start believing this?

When she first heard of God drying up the Red sea. Thats the WHOLE wilderness period of at least 40 years!

Thus the time for her faith to be made perfect with her works is at least 40 years.

Conclusion

James 2 is not inconsistent with Romans 4 or Galatians 3. Works are faith made perfect.

More importantly, James 2 should not be used to pressure your congregation to do works, and not rely on faith.

As shown in the Scriptures, even the 2 examples James 2 gave of Abraham and Rahab, took 2-5 decades before their faith resulted in works.

Yes works are important. However, works is the natural progression and outpouring of faith. It is not you doing works that proves your faith. God works in us all, in HIS time, not ours

By the way, do you know how did God honor these two people?

Abraham did become father of many nations. As for Rahab? From harlot, she married to Salmon, an Israelite and eventually from her descendants came King David, and eventually Jesus (Matthew 1:5)!

Commandment of Love

2009-11-01T01:38:00.001-07:00

In the New Covenant, these are what Jesus says about "his" commandments.

John 14:15 states "If ye love me, keep my commandments."

John 14:21 continued "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him."

In John 15:10 Jesus says "If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love."

Which commandments are Jesus talking about, the Ten Commandments given to God through Moses on Mt Sinai (ie the Law)? No. Jesus broke it and summarised in in two Commandments:

In Matthew 22:37-40 "Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind. This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets."

Have you realised the difference between the wording of Jesus' commandments and the way the original 10 Commandments were written? Does it correspond to the way the preacher in your pulpit preaches the "Commandments of God"? The major difference is Love. Love is mentioned in every one of those verses and the core of these two commandments

Therein lies the crux of the matter. Do you love the Lord your God with all your heart, soul and mind? Do you love your neighbour as yourself?

Love the Lord your God with all your heart, soul and mind

I dare say it is near impossible to realistically love God at all, let alone with all your heart, soul and mind, if all you are being tought is that God is a nit picking God, waiting for you moment of weakness, looking for you to make a mistake, break a commandment or act immoral.

Would you love your parents if they are like that? How about a teacher or police officer who is just waiting for you to screw up and punish you? Many times if thats what you are preached, there isn't much hope is there?

Why? Romans 10:17 states that "So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God."

What we believe in, for most Christians unfortunately is brought through by the preaching they receive. If all you learn is that God is waiting for you to make a mistake, some denominations even tell you a single sin can make you lose your salvation, how can you love a God like that? Fear definitely. Love?

If you are raising a child, you cannot force the child to love you, when all you do is nit pick and punish for every minor mistake, without any love or encouragement. You get them to love you by your actions AND your words. Your child has to know without a shadow of a doubt that you love him/her, no matter what s/he does. Unconditional love and security.

1 John 4:10 states "Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins."

This must be the foundation of all doctrines in Christ. This is the foundational understanding we must know, that God loved us first, and after knowing more and learning and hearing more of His love for us, we WILL love him back.

Love your neighbour as yourself

Knowing God loved us first, will give us the foundation and basis for loving others.

It gives us the foundation of loving our wives.

Ephesians 5:25 " Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;"

It gives us the power to forgive, as often it is not within our ability to forgive others who wronged us

Colossians 3:13 states "Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel against any: even as Christ forgave you, so also do ye."

It allows us to accept one another as brothers and sisters in Christ

Romans 15:7 states "Wherefore receive ye one another, as Christ also received us to the glory of God."

It even gives us the ability to be tender hearted and kind to one another, and again the power to forgive one another

Ephesians 4:32 "And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you."

Conclusion

Jesus' two commandments are impossible to do on our own power. Even to love God and to love one another, it is Jesus who first loved us, and out of the overflowing of his love, we love God, and our neighbour. This is another example of God's Grace, not our own works.

John wrote in 1 John 5:1-3 "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him. By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God, and keep his commandments. For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous."

Once we know this and hear this, that knowing God loved us first, making it easy for us to love God in return, and gives us the ability to love our neighbour, then it is not grevious nor difficult to follow these two commandments.

I conclude with Romans 13:8-10

"...but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law. For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law."

Is Pure Grace Without Works Heretical Teachings?

2009-09-15T03:59:00.001-07:00

This antinomian theology as appeared throughout Christian history, but has always been considered a heresy. However, as I have already covered the main two criticisms in my first post, here I will cover the common name calling against the Grace theology

Another Gospel

Galatians 1:6-9 states "I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ. But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed."

Diverse and Strange Doctrines

Hebrews13:9 states "Be not carried about with divers and strange doctrines. For it is a good thing that the heart be established with grace; not with meats, which have not profited them that have been occupied therein."

I find it amazing that in both verses, the Lord made sure that Grace is mentioned, so as to ensure that the Gospel of Grace is never mistaken for "strange doctrine" or "another gospel"

Seducing Spirits and Doctrines of Devils

Here is another verse to ponder, and gives further rebuke to the "License to sin" argument I covered in my previous post

1 Timothy 4:1-3 states "Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron; Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth."

Interestingly, I always thought that "seducing spirits and doctrines of devils" will be seducing us to be more free to do evil things right? Instead the examples of "forbidding to marry and abstaining from meats" seem to sound more like laws don't they?

Furthermore, I have always heard preaching that "conscience seared with a hot iron" means we become numb to sin that our conscience no longer bothers us. A simple question. When you are burnt, with a hot iron or any other hot injury that permanently disfigures but doesn't kill the nerves, will your injury be more sensitive or numb? I think the answer is more sensitive don't you agree?

Thus I put it out there that I think "having their conscience seared with a hot iron" means a oversensitive sin conscienceness rather than a numbed conscience.

Strange Fire

I have heard this before, that the doctrine of Grace without works is "strange fire"

Let us look where this is from.

Leviticus 10:1-2 states "And Nadab and Abihu, the sons of Aaron, took either of them his censer, and put fire therein, and put incense thereon, and offered strange fire before the LORD, which he commanded them not. And there went out fire from the LORD, and devoured them, and they died before the LORD."

Why did God kill these sons of Aaron? What did God "commanded them not"? What is this strange fire?

Leviticus 16:11-12 states "And Aaron shall bring the bullock of the sin offering, which is for himself, and shall make an atonement for himself, and for his house, and shall kill the bullock of the sin offering which is for himself. And he shall take a censer full of burning coals of fire from off the altar before the LORD, and his hands full of sweet incense beaten small, and bring it within the vail:"

Amazing isn't it? The fire that is to be used MUST come from the altar of the sin offering, not any old fire from matches or from a torch conveniently nearby!

AND who is our Sin Offering? Jesus! God's undeserved favour upon us! Grace! This verses speaks to us NOT to offer strange fire (your own works) rather fire from the alter of the sin offering (Jesus)!

Fallen From Grace

The most common usage of this phrase is when a man of God, usually a Christian or at least a "morally upright" man is caught commiting a sin. Would this doctrine of Grace make one "fall from grace"?

Galatians 5:4 states "Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law, ye are fallen from grace"

Amazing isn't it? Paul writes that if you try to be justified by the law, you have fallen from Grace!! This verse has nothing to do with "falling into sin"!

Conclusion

It is quite clear from Scripture that doctrine of Grace is not the heresy here. In every one of these names there is a serious accusation, from being another gospel, for being from seducing spirits and doctrines of demons, from being a diverse and strange doctrine or strange fire and of falling from Grace. However in ALL of them, the Bible talks about Grace being the opposite of them!

Thus is the belief in Grace without works heresy? It should be clear, quoting the exact same scriptures these famous labels are taken from it is the complete opposite. It is offering your works rather than God's Grace that is:

"another gospel"
"diverse and strange doctrines"
"giving heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of devils"
"strange fire"
"fallen from grace"!

What is a Antimonian Christian, and why do I believe in this theology?

2009-09-12T23:29:00.000-07:00

What is an Antinomian Christian?

An Antinomian christian is one that believes in one's Eternal Salvation purely through faith in Jesus' completed work on the Cross, or in Christian circles summarized to the doctrine of Grace (God's undeserved favour).

Furthermore, an Antimonian Christian believes in Eternal Salvation, that the basis of Salvation is Jesus work not our own (Grace without Work), and that we do not have to maintain our Salvation.

Many churches in the world justify their righteousness with a mixture of Law and Grace. However, I firmly believe this to produced confusing and inconsistent doctrines, and confused and ignorent Christians. The differences in nearly all the denominations are because they pick and choose which law to follow and which ones to ignore.

The term antinomian is actually a derogative term, meaning anti-law, which is used to term Christians like myself who do not believe the law applies to us Christians.

However there is a mistaken assumption that we do not respect or honour the law. I do believe the law is Holy and Just, given by God. The difference is I believe the law is fulfilled by Jesus Christ, and since it has been fulfilled in full, no longer applies to us.

Romans 8:1-4 "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death. For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit."

Of course this always brings about accusations of "Cheap/Free Grace" which gives an implication that its worthless grace. Another common argument is that that it gives us a license to sin. I will quickly answer the criticisms below and explain why I believe in purely Grace without work or the Law.

Criticism 1: Free Grace

Actually, this first criticism is faulty from the start, because our if we believe Jesus died for our sins, then its not free is it? Jesus paid for our sins!

So this Grace is not free, but paid for by God Himself, using his son Jesus to pay for our sins. I don't believe that this Salvation is free, in fact it is the most expensive cost in existance, namely God's own son!

So we don't act as if its worthless because we didn't pay anything, but we act thankful because someone infinitely more valuable than us made the sacrifice for us.

Romans 3:27-31 states "Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law."

Thus, Paul concludes that Justification by Faith without the Law IS establishing the Law.

Criticism 2: License to sin

This is a straw man argument, because it presupposes that we would WANT to sin.

In fact, this "License to sin" accusation of preachers of Grace without works doctrine was an accusation thrown at Apostle Paul. And he responded in Romans 6 (Please read the whole chapter).

His argument is simple, just because he stated in the previous chapter in Romans 5 that the more sin abounds, the Grace of God much more abounds, it does not mean that we will sin more! But that does not negate the fact that regardless, God's Grace still much more abounds for your sins. In fact he concluded that before we were servants to sin, now after Jesus, we are servants to righteousness!

Lets follow this logically.

Step 1) Why do we sin?

Would you agree with me in saying that we sin because our nature is sinful since Adam and Eve took the fruit of the knowledge of good and evil?

Jeremiah 17:9 states "The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?"

Step 2) What did Jesus' work on the cross do if we accept his work on the cross?

2 Corinthians 5:17 states "Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new."

Step 3) If we are a new creation, is our heart different?

Romans 6:14-18 states "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace. What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid. Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness? But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you. Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness."

If Adam is the reason our default desire is to sin, and Jesus has supposedly made a change, then as Christians our default desire would be not to sin, correct? Otherwise its saying Adam's sin is more powerful than Jesus' work!

But the Bible says its the opposite, Jesus' work is more powerful than Adam's sin

Romans 5:19-20 "For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound"

Thus I conclude that Grace without the Law does not give us a License to sin, in fact it gives us freedom from sin from within, not using external laws forced upon you using fear and/or punishment.

Galatians 5:16-18 "This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh. For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would. But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law."

1 John3:7-10 is interesting. It states"Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother."

"Aha!" you might think. See! If you do righteous works, you are of God, and you sin you are of the devil! However, I think this should be thought of closely. Surely we all agree that sinners, will sin, and are of the devil, so lets leave them aside. How about Christians, where the real issue is?

Verse 9 states that "Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God". The verse states TWICE that if one is born of God, one cannot commit and does not commit sin. So how can one know that one is born of God?

Lets look at the chapter 5 for the answer, because it identifies who is born of God

1 John 5:4-5 states "For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith. Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?"

There you have it! One who is born of God cannot sin (in God's eyes). The same author John identifies one that is born of God as one who overcomes the world, and furthermore identifies one that overcomes the world as one that beleives that Jesus is the Son of God!

So I conclude, rather than your works and trying your best to maintain your righteousness, that for a believer sin is no longer an issue because of Jesus' completed work!

Why Do I Believe Salvation is Purely Grace Without Works?

There are many churches that preach we are saved through Jesus' sacrifice, but preach on that we have to do good works or follow God's laws (ie the Ten Commandments) on top of that to be saved, or to maintain our salvation.

However, I am convinced that the opposite is true. Here are my reasons. Note I will be posting more extensive posts about this, so the below are briefly some verses that justify this. Please read their whole context of each verse (read the chapter its in) to understand the extent that Paul writes these points.

1) Man is Justified and made Righteous by Grace without the Law

The Bible is clear that to be justified before the eyes of God, there is only one way, through Jesus without the Law.

Galatians 3:11 states that "But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, the just shall live by faith"

Romans 10:3-4 states "For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God. For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth"

Romans 3:21-28 "But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."

Ephesians 2:8-9 "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast."

Titus 3:4-6 "But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;"

2) If you want to use the Law for your justification, ALL the Law must be fulfilled to PERFECTION

Regardless of whether you believe in dispensations or even that there is a difference between the Old and New Testament, there is one "Law" that is consistent in both Old and New Covenants.

If you keep the Law, if you fail in one, you fail in ALL of them and are subject to the curses of disobeying the Law.

James 2:10 states "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all."

Galations 3:10 states "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them."

Deut 27:26 states "Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them"

You cannot pick and choose which one is a big sin, which one is a minor sin. Sin is sin. You cannot even mix Law and Grace because if you fail one Law, you are guilty of failing ALL the Laws. Do you know what is the most common but failed Laws in the Bible? That you fear not, and not believing in God's word.

Fear and unbelief are not "minor" sins. Lets look at how God treats them

Revelations 21:8 states "But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death."

Fear and unbelief is classified with abominable acts, murder, whoremongering, sorcery, idolatry and liars!

The Law is not only the Ten Commandments, but also all the other requirements of the Jews in the Old Testament.

How many of you are circumcised? How many churches have an altar to sacrifice bulls and lambs if you sin? How many still follow the different Feasts?

Lets say we agree that the Law only talks about the 10 Commandments (it doesn't as many Christians who argue against pure Grace doctrine says "Law" in the New Testament actually refers to the old Jewish law), lets look at purely the 10 Commandments.

Even Paul himself could not do it!

He writes in Romans 7 (please read) that he tried to fulfill the Law, but instead the Law against coveting got him. The Law made him do the things he knows he shouldn't and not do the things he knows he should.

Thus if the requirement is perfect obedience of the law, one that even Paul himself could not fulfill, what do you think your chances are?

3) The Law itself causes you to sin

1 Cor 15:56 states "The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law."

Romans 7:7-11" What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence (NIV: covetous desire). For without the law sin was dead. For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died. And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death. For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me."

This is the reason why so many preachers are cought with their pants down. Those that preach aggressively against adultary are instead cought for adultary. Those that preach against this sin, or that sin, are often cought committing those sins.

Do you know that the name Satan comes from the Hebrew word Hasatan meaning the "Adversary"? If one looks at the context in Zechariah 4:1-10 the context in a common law system would mean that he is the prosecution or accuser, while the High Priest is the defence. Guess what a prosecutor does? He uses the Law to accuse the believer! Speaking of "accuser" doesn't that sound familiar?

Revelations 12:10 "And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night."

Speaking of Accusers on one side and High Priest on the other, doesn't it give you the image of Satan accusing on one side, while Jesus being our High Priest (Jesus our High Priest is covered in Hebrews extensively) is defending us on the other? Or in other words, the Law accusing us, while Grace is our defense?

Hebrews 9:11-15 "But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us. For if the blood of bulls and of goats, and the ashes of an heifer sprinkling the unclean, sanctifieth to the purifying of the flesh: How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God? And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

4) Suppose we could attain righteousness by our works/obeying the law, we are rejecting Jesus' work

Pretend someone paid for your lunch and already left, but when your bill comes and you find out its already paid, if you insist and pay anyway does this not make you ungrateful for the treat?

Galatians 2:21 states "I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain"

Galatians 5:4 states "Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law, ye are fallen from grace"

Romans 11:6 states "And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work."

5) The reason for the Law's existance is no longer valid the moment we accept Jesus Christ

Galatians 3:23-25 "But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster."

Clearly it says that the Law was given before Christ came to be our schoolmaster to bring us to Christ. But after Jesus came ("faith" is Righteousness by faith, as this is used throughout the book of Galatians in this manner) we are no longer under the law!

Why Do I Don't Believe In The Need Maintain Our Salvation

I would like to go into this in detail, but as this post is getting too long to read, I will do so in a future post. Here are several things to ponder:

1) If our salvation is purely by Jesus' work, shouldn't it be Jesus' work that must be corrupted or negated for us to lose our salvation?

2) If we don't get saved with good works when we were unsaved, why can a sin completely reverse our salvation by Jesus?

3) If the justification of our Salvation through Jesus' sacrifice can be negated by our sins, wouldn't the sacrifices of bulls and goats in the Old Testament be better? After all those sacrifices guarantee God's forgiveness for one year even if you sin!

4) If God truly gave his own son as a sacrifice and exchange for you, and because of that you become his child, do you think he will forsake you if you sin? Do you abandon your children if they are naughty (even adopted ones)?

5) "Eternal" life doesn't seem eternal at all if it relies upon your performance, don't you think? After all, God's standard is perfection. So if you fear, worry or even have an unpure thought, you blew it! All of us won't last several hours if that was so.

Here are my thoughts on this, maybe you may conclude the same:

Romans 8:38-39 "For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord"

Conclusion

To summarise:

1) Man is Justified by Grace without Law

2) If we want to follow the Law, we MUST follow ALL the Law (not pick and choose)

3) But it is impossible, in fact the Law itself causes you to sin

4) If we think we are following the Law, we negate Jesus' work

5) The reason for the Law became obsolete the moment Jesus completed his finished work

Not only does following the Law not work in practice, Biblically they are predicted to fail so that there is a need for a saviour. If we can do it ourselves, we don't need a saviour.

Don't you think its cruel to tell believers to do the impossible?

Without the law, Jesus' sacrifice is truly a free gift. I believe its free for your salvation as well as maintaining your salvation.

It makes no sense for Jesus to pay for your past sins, then you have to maintain it with your own works. Thats like giving a "free gift" but you have to pay for later, and on a lifetime contract too!

I won a "free" mobile phone like that once in a raffle. I paid two years for that "free gift".

I hope our Gospel isn't as dodgy as some of those deals.